What does 'Fornication Under Consent of the King' mean? - Answers (2024)

Nearly all these 'acronym' explanations for common naughty words such as f*** and sh** are nonsense. Any good reference dictionary will tell you the origin of such words, invariably considerably earlier than the supposed dates of the acronym.

http:/urbanlegends.about.com/library/bl-f-word.htm?terms=Fornication+Under+Consent+of+the+King

Urban Legends and Folklore Origin of the F-Word

Netlore Archive

Description: Folk etymology Circulating since: The 1960s Status: False Analysis: See below

Variant #1 Email example contributed by T. McInnis, 22 March 2001:

In ancient England a person could not have sex unless you had consent of the King (unless you were in the Royal Family). When anyone wanted to have a baby, they got consent of the King, the King gave them a placard that they hung on their door while they were having sex. The placard had F.*.*.*. (Fornication Under Consent of the King) on it. Now you know where that came from.

Variant #2 From a Usenet posting, 1 November 1990:

The word f*** comes from colonial times, when someone would be punished for 'prostitution' It was an acronym for the words

'For Unlawful Carnal Knowledge' F*** was written on the stocks that held these criminals because For Unlawful Carnal Knowledge was too long to go on the stocks.

Variant #3 From a Usenet posting, 12 October 1990:

I always heard that "F.*.*.*." originated in the 1800's in London, when they used to charge prostitutes "For Unlawful Carnal Knowledge". So officer got sick and tired of writing those, um, lessee, 26 characters, not including spaces, so it got abbreviated F*** and stuck.

Comments: Having consulted the definitive reference work on this subject (yes, there is such a thing: "The F-Word" by Jesse Sheidlower, published by Random House in 1999), we feel confident in dismissing the above claims as imaginative bunk.

The word f*** did not originate as an acronym. It crept, fully formed, into the English language from Dutch or Low German around the 15th century (it's impossible to say precisely when because so little documentary evidence exists, probably due to the fact that the word was so taboo throughout its early history that people were afraid to write it down). The American Heritage Dictionary says its first known occurrence in English literature was in the satirical poem "Flen, Flyss" (c.1500), where it was not only disguised as a Latin word but encrypted � gxddbov � which has been deciphered as fuccant, pseudo-Latin for "they f***."

According to Sheidlower, the earliest claims in print of supposed acronymic origins for the F-word appeared during the 1960s. An underground newspaper called the East Village Other published this version in 1967:

It's not commonly known that the word "f***" originated as a medical diagnostic notation on the documents of soldiers in the British Imperial Army. When a soldier reported sick and was found to have V.D., the abbreviation F.*.*.*. was stamped on his documents. It was short for "Found Under Carnal Knowledge." Two more variants appeared in a letter published in Playboy magazine in 1970:

My friend claims that the word f*** originated in the 15th Century, when a married couple needed permission from the king to procreate. Hence, Fornication Under Consent of the King. I maintain that it's an acronym of a law term used in the 1500s that referred to rape as Forced Unnatural Carnal Knowledge." Undoubtedly the most famous use of this etymological travesty was as the title of the 1991 Van Halen album, "For Unlawful Carnal Knowledge."

Comments: Aside from the Latin "fuccant" as a basis of origin, the most logical variant that I have heard is the following. That even in the relatively crude times of the middle ages, the catholic church along with local governments, following religious doctrine, kept sins of the flesh and crime down with fairly stern punishments (i.e. beatings, hanging, burning, dismemberment).

This practice was only challenged after the first coinciding of the Bubonic Plague in England in the 1340's. After the conservatively estimated death tole of roughly 30 to 60 percent of the English population, the previously very militaristic King Edward III was faced with a shortage of manpower and with it, food supplies, infrastructure, and (probably most important to the king) public sentiment. Understandingly the list of offenses requiring death were shortened as adding insult to injury was not in the king's favor.

One method proposed to him for alleviating the population scarcity was "fornication under consent of the king" whereby, for a time, the crime of unlawful fornication was stricken from punishment if the person in question was unmarried. It was the hope that the royal decree (basically a scare tactic) would encourage more people to wed and in turn have children. Whether it worked or not is history's guess but as a cynical person I like this theory best.

one of the the most gory , bloody and tragic times in England history is time of Henry VIII..because of plague, homicide,battles ,wars half of England population died and English army had insufficient soldiers. The King was worried about the future of Great Britain. At the end he has a research made and found out that there were lots of rascal men in jails and dungeons and so many prostitutes as well. So he decided to allow them to make love for increasing the population of England.

Mating was organized in jails between prostitutes and rascal men to provide population explosion. Since it was done by the permission of king it was known as " Fornication Under the Control of King" or abbreviated (FU_K). In 15 years population increased twofold. This is brief story of the word F_CK ..well also that point out the actual truth that half of English are illegitimate

The Variant # 1 is correct !! it was used in ancient time when the pplz had to take placard from the king before having sex otherwise they were punished !!

I have heard that it means "Fornicating Under Command of the King" which meant that they wanted to repopulate after the plague.

The true meaning of the f word is "fornication under the consent of the king". when foreign dignitaries would come visit the king, the trip would take days if not weeks or months. so they were issued a "f.**k. basically it was the right for the person to sleep with the eldest unwed female at which ever house he chose to spend the night.

Another Answer:

This is one of the false etymologies of the word f..k. Similarly, "Fornication Under the Command of the King" is also a false etymology.

What does 'Fornication Under Consent of the King' mean? - Answers (2024)

FAQs

What is fornicating fornication under consent of king? ›

Royal permission (usually from a local magistrate or lord) is said to have required placing a sign visible from the road reading: "Fornicating/Fornication Under Consent of King", later shortened to f*ck.

Where did the f-word come from? ›

The F-word in the dictionary. The F-word was recorded in a dictionary in 1598 (John Florio's A Worlde of Wordes, London: Arnold Hatfield for Edw. Blount). It is remotely derived from the Latin futuere and Old German ficken/f*cken meaning 'to strike or penetrate', which had the slang meaning to copulate.

Was the F-word used in the 1700s? ›

Though the F-word was first in print around 1500, etymologists aren't sure of its origins. For the next 500 years, it was censored in print and polite society, yet remained widespread in common use. Today, the word has lost much of its stigma and is being used more to highlight the intensity of a thought.

What is the origin of the word fornication? ›

In Latin, the term fornix means arch or vault. In ancient Rome, prostitutes waited for their customers out of the rain under vaulted ceilings, and fornix became a euphemism for brothels, and the Latin verb fornicare referred to a man visiting a brothel. The first recorded use in English is in the Cursor Mundi, c.

What's the difference between fornication and adultery? ›

Adultery is only used when at least one of the parties involved (either male or female) is married, whereas fornication may be used to describe two people who are unmarried (to each other or anyone else) engaging in consensual sexual intercourse.

What are examples of fornication? ›

The modern dictionary definition of fornication is voluntary sexual intercourse between persons not married to each other, which would include adultery. In the Old Testament, all sexual sin was prohibited by the Mosaic Law and Jewish custom.

Is the f word in the Bible? ›

To be perfectly clear, the Bible never uses anything equivalent to the s-word, the f-word, or any other such word. As we can clearly see from the entry, the word skubalon, like most words, has a semantic range and not a fixed definition, and certainly not a fixed inherent vulgarity.

What is the oldest swear word? ›

The word fart is the first and therefore, the oldest swear word in the English language. In old English, the word had a different form — “feortan.” In Latin, the word had a very different form “pedere.” Its proto-Indo-European root is *perd which means to break wind loudly.

Is the f word a sin? ›

The point the Bible makes is that the words you use aren't the problem. Words are neutral. The way you use words dictates if they become good or bad. The point is swearing is not a sin because of the word itself.

What did Jesus say about fornication? ›

But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving. for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and. whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

Does God forgive fornication? ›

Like a compass pointed firmly north, God wants our hearts directed toward, and firmly on, him. For those of us who have given our lives over to him, he offers his unending grace and forgiveness for all we have done or will do that is counter to his will. This includes having sex before marriage.

Why does God not allow fornication? ›

Sexual sin degrades and misuses the body which God indwells as his temple. “Or do you not know that your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit within you, whom you have from God? You are not your own, for you were bought with a price. So glorify God in your body” (1 Corinthians 6:19-20).

What does the King James version say about fornication? ›

[18] Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that commiteth fornication sinneth against his own body. [19] What? know ye not that your body is the temple of the Holy Ghost which is in you, which ye have of God, and ye are not your own?

What acts count as fornication? ›

Fornication–now more commonly referred to as premarital sex–is when two unmarried individuals engage in sexual intercourse. Traditionally, laws against fornication referred specifically to heterosexual couples, as separate laws governed hom*osexual relations.

What is the sin of fornification? ›

Fornication is defined as sexual intercourse between unmarried persons. The Bible speaks of fornication as a grave sin. Mark 7:20 - "And Jesus said, 'What comes out of a man is what defiles a man.

Is it fornication if you sleep in the same bed? ›

As Christians, we already know that we are to avoid sexual immorality and to avoid situations that would cause us to be tempted into sexual sin. Sleeping in the same bed would not be wise as it could easily cause sexual sin.

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